Anonymous
7/17/2025, 12:56:59 PM No.937220700
Someone pleas explain something to me.
In modern society it is understood that men and women are equal in terms of mental capability. It is also understood that men have the advantage in terms of physical capability. Any action we take is some combination of our mental and physical capabilities.
Following this logic, does it not mean that men are inherently superior to women? In any action that is 100% mental, they are equal to women. And in any action that involves physical capability, they have an advantage. Therefore, how can we possibly say that men are not inherently superior to women?
In modern society it is understood that men and women are equal in terms of mental capability. It is also understood that men have the advantage in terms of physical capability. Any action we take is some combination of our mental and physical capabilities.
Following this logic, does it not mean that men are inherently superior to women? In any action that is 100% mental, they are equal to women. And in any action that involves physical capability, they have an advantage. Therefore, how can we possibly say that men are not inherently superior to women?
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