>>17885891>What definition is that, if not the actual meaning of the word "perfection" within the English language?Most definitions according to dictionnaries are negative definitions ("without fault"), I've given you the positive, objectively correct one.
>You are ascribing these qualities to this idea arbitrarily, asserting without any basis whatsoever that you are not doing so arbitrarily is not an argument.>You are ascribing these qualities to this idea arbitrarilyno, I am doing it according to the positive definition of the word "Perfection", which I have already stated in my above post.
>Why do you believe this? Because according to the positive definition of Perfection that i have just provided you, the object that has the quality of it is the source of all other external objects, as I have stated in my OTHER above post.
>And don't think it can be simply stepped over that you are attempting to smuggle in this term "Perfect Object" without showing that it exists or is meaningful.This is a meaningless objection because if the quality in question - which is inextricable from the object that possess by its definition, which again includes unicity, which i've stated in YET ANOTHER ABOVE POST - was uncontemplateable - that is to say, not perceiveable by any experiencing being - then the entire exchange we've just had would be logically impossible to have had occurred. Therefore the quality must be contemplateable, which means it has a source, an object that logically possess the quality acting as a referential. Or do you suppose that qualities can simply appear out of Nothing, with no referential or object ascribed to them?
>Thanks Kierkegaard, if you are really just going to throw up your hands and declare that your argument is incomprehensibleI did not do so; in fact, I said quite the opposite in that while a man cannot understand immediately all that he lays his eyes on, he can yet learn the correct information concerning the input. (1/2)