Anonymous
ID: Hwt8zkt/
7/2/2025, 9:20:55 AM No.509288002
Sry for bad english in advance.
Can somebody explain why exactly many people nowadays use the term "zionism" the way they do? And when exactly the switch occured?
The word started existing even before Israel's creation and initially meant creation/existence of a country for jewish ethnicity. And as far as I know the official govt of Palestine(I am not talking about HAMAS) doesn't want destruction of the whole Israel. They want to take about 10-15% of Israel's land and that's it. So they r not against Israel's existence. And the initial meaning of the word "zionism" meant simply having country for Jews. So the official govt of Palestine is not against zionism.
Nowadays I see a lot of people using the term as synonymous to "occupation of Palestinian lands" or "genocide in Gaza" which is very much different from initial meaning. Drasticly different. So who exactly did such definition switch and when exactly? Feels like it's probably not the Israeli govt who decided to start using the term "zionism" this way.
Also feels weird that people just cannot use the word occupation for occupation or the word genocide for genocide, they just feel the need to use the term "zionism" instead, and when I hear such people talk I cannot even understand if they want complete destruction of Israel or they just say one thing and expect everybody else to have telepathy in order to understand that by the word "zionism" they meant exactly land occupation/carpet bombing of Gaza.
Can somebody explain why exactly many people nowadays use the term "zionism" the way they do? And when exactly the switch occured?
The word started existing even before Israel's creation and initially meant creation/existence of a country for jewish ethnicity. And as far as I know the official govt of Palestine(I am not talking about HAMAS) doesn't want destruction of the whole Israel. They want to take about 10-15% of Israel's land and that's it. So they r not against Israel's existence. And the initial meaning of the word "zionism" meant simply having country for Jews. So the official govt of Palestine is not against zionism.
Nowadays I see a lot of people using the term as synonymous to "occupation of Palestinian lands" or "genocide in Gaza" which is very much different from initial meaning. Drasticly different. So who exactly did such definition switch and when exactly? Feels like it's probably not the Israeli govt who decided to start using the term "zionism" this way.
Also feels weird that people just cannot use the word occupation for occupation or the word genocide for genocide, they just feel the need to use the term "zionism" instead, and when I hear such people talk I cannot even understand if they want complete destruction of Israel or they just say one thing and expect everybody else to have telepathy in order to understand that by the word "zionism" they meant exactly land occupation/carpet bombing of Gaza.
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