>IQ is a predictor of success
>race is a predictor of IQ
>therefore...

the snigbo race covers from southern portugal to northern france and has a lower iq than the munggung race of northern germany through southern norway.

some cultures use their own racial classification systems of course and we can derive statistical information about those culturally determined classifications. i present to you the most relevant classification. the snigbo are of course a middling race with heavy brow ridges indicating moderate intelligence.

>>81941284 (OP)
>IQ test asks verbal reasoning questions
>verbal reasoning questions are in English
>administer tests to ESLs
"Wow these foreign types sure are retarded!"

>>81941421
Funnily enough foreigners often have a better command of English than native speakers.

>>81941421
Calm down Ranjeet

>>81941284 (OP)
Therefore the Irish are dumber than Africans.

>>81941458
Purely environmental factors(prenatal alcohol exposure)

>>81941463
They were priced lower than Africans in the slave market for a damn good reason.
What kind of people fucks up planting potatoes? Its not environment; they're just a naturally lazy and dumb people by their very existence.

>>81941284 (OP)
Jews are the master race

>>81941714
I never hear whites say this but I hear jews say it a lot

>>81941284 (OP)
Low IQ post
Correlations are not transitive.
Suppose you have three random variables: X, Y, and Z.
Let:
corr(X, Y) = 0.99 (very strong positive correlation)
corr(Y, Z) = 0.99 (also very strong)
But corr(X, Z) = 0
This is mathematically possible and has been shown in real examples.
Pearson correlation measures linear relationships between two variables, based on how much one tends to increase or decrease when the other does.
But correlation is strictly pairwise. That means:
The relationship between X and Y depends only on how X and Y vary together.
The relationship between Y and Z depends only on Y and Z.
There's no mathematical rule that connects corr(X, Y) and corr(Y, Z) in a way that determines corr(X, Z).
An example using 3D vectors.
Suppose:
X = (1, 0, 0)
Y = (1, 1, 0)
Z = (0, 1, 0)
Now compute cosine similarities, which are proportional to correlation (after standardization):
cos(X, Y) is about 0.707
cos(Y, Z) is about 0.707
cos(X, Z) = 0
This shows:
X and Y are strongly aligned
Y and Z are strongly aligned
But X and Z are completely orthogonal (no correlation at all)
This means: even with strong correlation between X and Y and Y and Z, X and Z can be unrelated.
There is no mathematical rule or inequality that forces corr(X, Z) to be large (or even nonzero) just because both corr(X, Y) and corr(Y, Z) are large. Therefore, correlation is not transitive.

>>81941794
They call you a kike, but they never call you a liar.

>>81941998
Lets take a look at race as a predictor of success, oh hey would you look at that. Thanks for all the paragraphs though