>>16697713>0Exists, demonstrably. It can't not. Consider the pigeonhole principle with one pigeon removed - just because "nothing's in this hole" doesn't tell you what's SUPPOSED to be in the hole doesn't mean the hole doesn't have nothing in it. The pigeonhole principle is applicable whenever counting is applicable, so you have to abandon counting to abandon 0.
It's sort of like saying shadows don't exist because they're an absence of something else. It's clearly, visibly false - both light and shadow are discernible regions within the same field.
0 is ironically necessary for defining what doesn't exist - if we define a "glorp" as "something that can't ever exist in this universe," there can only ever be exactly 0 "glorps" in the universe. 0 fills in the universe's pigeonholes for anything like a "glorp".
>but it doesn't have glorp pigeonholesSo it has exactly 0 glorp pigeonholes - still can't get away from the universe needing at least one "0," otherwise "possible" and "impossible" become meaningless.
>irrationalsIt's trivial to create them physically.
There's always [math]\pi[/math] of course, but the easier demonstration is that you can't have a rational distance (i.e. a whole number of rational-spaced markings on an arbitrary ruler) between opposite corners of a square with rational length sides.
The measured distance is irrational to arbitrary precision no matter the resolution of your rational ruler markings. The only way to get the markings to align is to make the marking distance irrational (some whole number fraction of [math]\sqrt2[/math]; still irrational).
Of course, by making such an irrational ruler, you again prove irrationals are physically real... as it would now be impossible to use the ruler to perfectly measure the sides of a square with rational sides.
Irrationals have always been something of a problem for hard finitists.