>Germany started WW2 because they invaded Poland
but Russia also invaded?

>Hitler proved to be untrustworthy which is why they decided to give a guarantee to Poland, naively hoping it would deter Hitler from his long stated and well known goals
So why did Stalin trust him?

>Roosevelt was both strong on the dictators but also an isolationist
or perhaps he was a warmonger who got told to fuck off by Congress in July 1939, by which point he had already done the damage in forcing Britain to guarantee Poland.

>WW1 was complicated
>WW2 was clearly distinction between good and evil
But in WW1 Germany literally invaded mobilized against Russia and invaded France, whereas in WW2 they only mobilized against Poland?

>Hitler was so evil he wanted a second world war
So why did he cancel the invasion on August 26th? In fact why didn't he invade Poland at any point before August?

>Hitler laid out his plans in Mein Kampf...
... which was to to ally with Poland and wage war against Commie Russia. Not ally with Commie Russia to wage war against Poland and Britain.

Is there literally a single point where the Anglo-American version of WW2 makes any logical sense?