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7/20/2025, 8:27:56 AM
>>510841005
If God is real and objectively moral, why did he allow and tolerate slavery, which we all agree now is objectively immoral?
>Because it was normal back then
That’s no excuse. If the Bible is true, God has destroyed entire civilizations for following norms he did not like (flooding the world, Sodom and Gomorrah). Why should he bend the knee to human norms? In fact he only intervenes to end slavery for the Hebrews, violating the Egyptian norms for slavery, but doesn’t free the non-Hebrew slaves and ends up getting them killed during the plagues (such as when he summons hail and lightning). Despite this he still allows slavery in Hebrew society. He intervened before, violated the Pharaoh’s free will by hardening his heart specifically to punish the Egyptians more (which also violated just war theory) so why couldn’t he do that before or now?
If God is real and objectively moral, why did he allow and tolerate slavery, which we all agree now is objectively immoral?
>Because it was normal back then
That’s no excuse. If the Bible is true, God has destroyed entire civilizations for following norms he did not like (flooding the world, Sodom and Gomorrah). Why should he bend the knee to human norms? In fact he only intervenes to end slavery for the Hebrews, violating the Egyptian norms for slavery, but doesn’t free the non-Hebrew slaves and ends up getting them killed during the plagues (such as when he summons hail and lightning). Despite this he still allows slavery in Hebrew society. He intervened before, violated the Pharaoh’s free will by hardening his heart specifically to punish the Egyptians more (which also violated just war theory) so why couldn’t he do that before or now?
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