If there truly was an Epstein client list, how could blackmail be a factor? It seems to me that it would have to be one or the other—a straightforward illicit service arrangement or a deliberate setup for blackmail—but it can’t logically be both at the same time.

Moreover, almost all the victims were close to the age of consent, which complicates the typical narrative.

Also, the “john” model doesn’t rely on a formal clientele—that’s why the term “john” is used. Illicit services rarely happen through explicit requests; rather, both parties operate with an unspoken understanding of where and how these encounters occur.