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Anonymous /his/17776610#17780361
6/21/2025, 7:05:47 AM
>>17779463
>The term used is ἀπὸ θεοῦ ἄνθρωποι
The text here is «οἱ ἅγιοι θεοῦ ἄνθρωποι», see screenshot from Stephanus 1550 and Beza 1604 editions. It means "holy men of God" and is written with a definite article in this instance.

The word θεοῦ here in 2 Peter 1:21 is given in Genitive case, in the sense that they are God's. It's the same Genitive case word used in "Son of God," in other passages, as well as "will of God," "kingdom of God," "temple of God," "commandment of God," or even the more generalized "things that be of God" (τὰ τοῦ θεοῦ) in other passages. The article and other three words in the aforementioned phrase in the received text of 2 Peter 1:21 are Nominative case. Compare this to 2 Peter 3:2 which has «ῥημάτων ὑπὸ τῶν ἁγίων προφητῶν» (words of the holy prophets). The word προφητῶν is masculine.

>The term used is ἀπὸ θεοῦ ἄνθρωποι, "human beings from God"
The critical text differs from the received text here, and has the words «ἀπὸ θεοῦ» instead, which modifies the preceding verb "ἐλάλησαν" (spoke, thus meaning "spoke from God"). The construction is substantially different since there the genitive θεοῦ, signifying ownership, is applied to the verb "spoke" rather than to the men who were being moved by the Holy Ghost.

I am of a mind to think that "speaking while being moved by the Holy Spirit" (i.e. affected by the "inspiration of God," as Paul called it in 2 Timothy 3:16) is already speaking from God, since the Holy Spirit is God.