>>18156433
Indians believe that the Steppe originated in India, not that they don't have Steppe (20-30%), which makes no sense since Aryavarta/Brahmavarta only encompasses the territories of Northern India, which is precisely the closest place to Central Asia and, besides the genetic evidence, Sanskrit is more similar to Indo-Iranian/European languages than to Dravidian ones. Hindutva literally believes that they whitened/literated all of Eurasia, but not the people of their own Northern territories and Southern neighbors in fucking India.
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>>18150440
IVC began to decline around 1900 BCE and most of their cities were abandoned around 1700 BCE, with the Vedic/Indo-Aryan beginning in 1500 BCE, but the IVC pottery lasted until 1300 BCE. It's because this and DNA evidence that a prolonged migration thesis, not an invasion, is supported. Even before the genetic evidence came out, historians noted that there is a total absence of warfare and destruction in the areas of the Late Harappa. Archeologically, an invasion is laughable. Why? Because pottery transitioned very slowly from the IVC to the Vedic iron age. As did metal working. If there was an actual invasion like in Europe, we would see thousands or at least hundreds of weapons radiocarbon dated to 2000-1500 BC. We would also see a sharp, jarring transition from Late Harappa ware to Cemetery H pottery, not a smooth transition over centuries.
And then looking at genetics, Indians have a predominance of pre-IE yDNA haplogroups. Most Pakistani and Indian men have some subclade of L, H, T, G, J, and so on. If we want to compare this to Europe, India actually has a remarkable survival of mesolithic paternal lineages like H1a1 (equivalent to I1 in scandinavia) despite its extremely ancient origin. R1a is common in come groups due to endogamy and chance breeding events, but in most cases its uniformly spread across India with little correlation between Aryan/Dravidian language groups.
Steppe_MLBA, aka Aryans, only comprise at best 10% of Indian admixture and 20-35% of High Castes. While this, Pakistanis have over 35-40% Steppe_MLBA, since most of the IVC was located there. Most high caste are between 70 and 60% Harrapan (Iran_N+AASI), they are just a little less AASI than the average Indian because the migration of Neolithic Iranians occurred more in Pakistan/Northern India where IVC was and endogamy/intertribal marriage because of Caste System.
IVC began to decline around 1900 BCE and most of their cities were abandoned around 1700 BCE, with the Vedic/Indo-Aryan beginning in 1500 BCE, but the IVC pottery lasted until 1300 BCE. It's because this and DNA evidence that a prolonged migration thesis, not an invasion, is supported. Even before the genetic evidence came out, historians noted that there is a total absence of warfare and destruction in the areas of the Late Harappa. Archeologically, an invasion is laughable. Why? Because pottery transitioned very slowly from the IVC to the Vedic iron age. As did metal working. If there was an actual invasion like in Europe, we would see thousands or at least hundreds of weapons radiocarbon dated to 2000-1500 BC. We would also see a sharp, jarring transition from Late Harappa ware to Cemetery H pottery, not a smooth transition over centuries.
And then looking at genetics, Indians have a predominance of pre-IE yDNA haplogroups. Most Pakistani and Indian men have some subclade of L, H, T, G, J, and so on. If we want to compare this to Europe, India actually has a remarkable survival of mesolithic paternal lineages like H1a1 (equivalent to I1 in scandinavia) despite its extremely ancient origin. R1a is common in come groups due to endogamy and chance breeding events, but in most cases its uniformly spread across India with little correlation between Aryan/Dravidian language groups.
Steppe_MLBA, aka Aryans, only comprise at best 10% of Indian admixture and 20-35% of High Castes. While this, Pakistanis have over 35-40% Steppe_MLBA, since most of the IVC was located there. Most high caste are between 70 and 60% Harrapan (Iran_N+AASI), they are just a little less AASI than the average Indian because the migration of Neolithic Iranians occurred more in Pakistan/Northern India where IVC was and endogamy/intertribal marriage because of Caste System.
>>520985720
And then looking at genetics, Indians have a predominance of pre-IE yDNA haplogroups. Most Pakistani and Indian men have some subclade of L, H, T, G, J, and so on. If we want to compare this to Europe, India actually has a remarkable survival of mesolithic paternal lineages like H1a1 (equivalent to I1 in scandinavia) despite its extremely ancient origin. R1a is common in come groups due to endogamy and chance breeding events, but in most cases its uniformly spread across India with little correlation between Aryan/Dravidian language groups.
Steppe_MLBA, aka Aryans, only comprise at best 10% of Indian admixture and 20-35% of High Castes. While this, Pakistanis have over 35-40% Steppe_MLBA, since most of the IVC was located there. Most high caste are between 70 and 60% Harrapan (Iran_N+AASI), they are just a little less AASI than the average Indian because the migration of Neolithic Iranians occurred more in Pakistan/Northern India where IVC was and endogamy/intertribal marriage because of Caste System. In India, an upper caste and a lower caste from the same village have a genetic distance that is almost equivalent to the genetic distance of Italians and Norwegians. So things like >>520983308 is bullshit, since we too don't have Vedic samples, but we do have samples from Pakistanis of the Vedic Era (who, remember, have more Aryan DNA than Indians) and they don't exceed 30-40% Steppe_MLBA (Pakistan_Loebanr_IA_o,AG.I12138 is 34.1% Russia_MLBA_Sintashta).
And then looking at genetics, Indians have a predominance of pre-IE yDNA haplogroups. Most Pakistani and Indian men have some subclade of L, H, T, G, J, and so on. If we want to compare this to Europe, India actually has a remarkable survival of mesolithic paternal lineages like H1a1 (equivalent to I1 in scandinavia) despite its extremely ancient origin. R1a is common in come groups due to endogamy and chance breeding events, but in most cases its uniformly spread across India with little correlation between Aryan/Dravidian language groups.
Steppe_MLBA, aka Aryans, only comprise at best 10% of Indian admixture and 20-35% of High Castes. While this, Pakistanis have over 35-40% Steppe_MLBA, since most of the IVC was located there. Most high caste are between 70 and 60% Harrapan (Iran_N+AASI), they are just a little less AASI than the average Indian because the migration of Neolithic Iranians occurred more in Pakistan/Northern India where IVC was and endogamy/intertribal marriage because of Caste System. In India, an upper caste and a lower caste from the same village have a genetic distance that is almost equivalent to the genetic distance of Italians and Norwegians. So things like >>520983308 is bullshit, since we too don't have Vedic samples, but we do have samples from Pakistanis of the Vedic Era (who, remember, have more Aryan DNA than Indians) and they don't exceed 30-40% Steppe_MLBA (Pakistan_Loebanr_IA_o,AG.I12138 is 34.1% Russia_MLBA_Sintashta).