According to gay.i. the chances of a coin landing on heads 100 times in a row is as follows:
>The probability of flipping a coin and landing on heads 100 times in a row is extremely low, calculated as (1/2)^100, which is approximately 0.79 x 10^(-30).
How is this possible when the chances of landing on heads is about 50/50 on any given flip, including the 100th flip.
Please forgive any retardation in my post i did not pass high school, somebody please teach me.