>>41255450
>>41241755
NTA but the idea that Jesus was being rude or dismissing Mary completely misunderstands the ancient language and the core of the passage.

The term 'Woman' (gynai) was a respectful, formal address, sometimes even an honorific. Jesus uses it for other women, and most significantly, he uses it again for Mary from the Cross (John 19:26) at the most tender moment, confirming its respectful use.

The idiom, 'What have I to do with thee?' is a Semitic way of asserting independence. Jesus was simply clarifying that the launch of his miraculous, messianic ministry the moment leading to his 'hour' of the Cross must be governed by God's divine timetable, not by any human or familial request.

If it were a flat rejection, Mary would have walked away hurt. Instead, she tells the servants, 'Do whatever he tells you' (John 2:5). She had perfect faith. Jesus's action immediately after his words shows he was not rejecting her as a person, but was moved by her intercession, thereby demonstrating both his divine authority and his perfect love for his mother.