.

The beautiful game as we call it

you'd think the bundes would have better quality streams than this

>>149683067 (OP)
this is what premier would be without foreigners?

Completely comparable with all the different rules, balls, pitches, semi professional players.... NOT

let me guess - you *need* more?

>the despair of the goalkeeper alone

>>149683156
yes, more blacks

>>149683097
(easy softball)
what german clubs are LIV and MUN?

>>149683067 (OP)
What year is this? If a modern manager went back in time with modern tactics, would he dominate everyone completely and win every World Cup?

>>149683067 (OP)
Damn its a good thing americans (((jews))) and arabs pumped money into their league to make it good.

>>149683224
Liverkusen and Munich, duh

>>149683252
this was 1980 when the english league was dominating europe though. everything got worse when americans got involved.

>>149683242
modern peds more like

>>149683067 (OP)
Where was VAR?

say the line /sp/

>>149683067 (OP)
plumber kino

If it was finished it would unironically be in all the classic goal compilations, that self-chip through ball was amazing.

>money is bad
>plumberball is bad
which one is it /sp/

>>149683252
And black players

>>149683111
Indeed

>>149683784
money is bad

>>149683067 (OP)
kek the final plot twist is chefs kiss

>>149683288
>1980 when the english league was dominating europe

>>149683288
>1980's english football

Ah, the sweet time of no seats, overcrowding, hooliganism and death.

>>149687660
This makes absolutely no sense.
From 1970 to 1976, Dutch and German teams were dominant the UCL, while Germany won 1 Euros and 1 WC and the Netherlands started their golden era with Cruyff.
From 1977 it was English teams dominating UCL up until Heysel disaster in 1985.
This graph is the opposite of reality for that period.

>>149687715
>From 1970 to 1976, Dutch and German teams were dominant the UCL
you mean Ajax and Bayern. one club from each league winning UCL doesn't mean the leagues were dominant
>while Germany won 1 Euros and 1 WC and the Netherlands started their golden era with Cruyff.
the graph is only about club football
>From 1977 it was English teams dominating UCL up until Heysel disaster in 1985.
West Germany had a team in the semi-final or the final in every year for 7 consecutive seasons starting from 76/77, so they were very close behind England there.
but West German teams also did better than English teams in the Club Winners' Cup and in the UEFA Cup. for example, in the 1979/80 season the UEFA Cup semi-finals had 4 West German teams

>>149687843
I mean I am not a Bayern hater but they did rig that 1975 final. Spanish levels of rigging

It would have been offside anyway with that final pass.

>>149683253
Phenomenally underrated post

>>149683312
it's not offside if both the passer and the receiver of pass are behind the defenders

>>149683067 (OP)
State of that pitch. Imagine a modern football on those, it'll be bobbling even worse.

>>149683212
yes you do

>>149687843
>you mean Ajax and Bayern
And Feyenoord.
>one club from each league winning UCL doesn't mean the leagues were dominant
It is when you can only send one team to the European cup, pre-UCL era
>the graph is only about club football
Fair enough, I was trying to make sense of it somehow as it's got no labels. The point is that the graph is wrong no matter what metric you take.
>West Germany had a team in the semi-final or the final in every year for 7 consecutive seasons starting from 76/77
Nice, nice. How many "reached the semi-finals" cups did then win?
And the UEFA cup and Cup Winners' Cup were secondary competitions. The EPL is clearly dominant nowadays and yet you'll still sometimes see EPL teams underperform in secondary competitions because they choose to prioritise the EPL which is way more important.

>>149688238
>It would have been offside anyway with that final pass.
It wouldn't, the other attacker is clearly behind the ball

>>149683253
kek

>>149689814
>It is when you can only send one team to the European cup
it's not. there were 3 competitions with 4-6 teams from each of the top leagues participating in total, so the competition with only 1 team from each league couldn't decide which league was dominant
>The point is that the graph is wrong no matter what metric you take.
the graph is 100% correct if you take the metric of the league with the best UEFA coefficient because that's literally what the graph shows. and a league can't be considered "dominant" in a given period if it didn't even have the highest UEFA coefficient at the time
>Nice, nice. How many "reached the semi-finals" cups did then win?
one, that's why I said that they were behind England in terms of UCL
>And the UEFA cup and Cup Winners' Cup were secondary competitions.
yes, but if the English league had been dominant in that period, their teams wouldn't have fared worse than West German teams in those two competitions, especially the UEFA Cup. how can a league be dominant if its teams 2-5 aren't able to outcompete teams 2-5 from another league? Ligue 1 won't be a dominant league over EPL only supposing that PSG rapes everyone in the UCL for the next few seasons. the other French teams would need to show competitive results too
>The EPL is clearly dominant nowadays and yet you'll still sometimes see EPL teams underperform in secondary competitions
the secondary competitions are practically irrelevant for determining the dominant league today because every UCL has 4-5 teams from each of the top leagues. that wasn't the case around 1980 when most of the top league teams played in the UEFA Cup