>>17819413 (OP)Originally it's simply the matter of the capital and incentives (promises either from the market or the gov-ment); no way Ireland would have industrialized earlier than England, right?
Later, once the market is established, one part of it would be the major dominating force. A good example is how the English "opened" India or how they pinned down (together with the Yanks I guess) the entirety of South America.
The south could not industrialized because it was a risky endeavor to battle the northern factories, so you might as well stick to the already-profit-making agricultural stuff, just like the Brazilians did lmao. Same for Italy also (North/South), same for France (Paris/non-Paris).
It's a great question though, I love it. To properly industrialize with already existing big markets you need to be both super-smart about it and independent, like Japan in the older times, Taiwan or some of the post ww2 miracle states