>>24642654
>Even if according to some theory the word "nazi" had an objective meaning
It might not have to do with "objective" meanings. But rather "tier of meanings". Even in a family relation, there is a head of the house. In that sense the "literal" meaning of Nazi somebody might appeal to to defend the poor and incoherent use of the word Nazi. Might just be a "meaning" either "more well known", "more prioritized", "more preferred", by commonality of use...but no. I dont think thats it. I dont think its commonality of use.
In my judgements, slang is more commonly used than most words that arent literal conjuctions, suffixes, etc you get the point.
In that case, id wager even if not now, that there was some point where the word "grammar nazi" was more commonly used actually than "nazi" at all.
I think the word "literal nazi" gets its "head of the house" tier meaning from the percieved significance with the historical events its associated with, and all the AUTHORITIES associated with mapping out its meaning, scholars, political heads, entire countries etc.
My point is sort of that. We cannot just give meaning to "use". I agree with almost every single thing Wittgenstein says. He truly captures the essence of the way language IS, and explains well some problems of language and how meaning gets imposed that I was prior unable to truly reconcile.
But maybe I dont know there is disconnect, it feels like something is missing. Im looking for something more than just what language is, and what we can know of that, because language also "wants to be?"
I dont know im just thinking out loud at this point.
All I know is that. The use of the word Nazi outlines an incoherence where words cannot mean anything, and nobody really intends to mean anything specific, but theres a clear higher tier of a family of meanings that people will try to commonly appeal to when they WANT to selectively invoke meanings that justify certain actions and behaviours.