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Thread 16737432

74 posts 14 images /sci/
Anonymous No.16737432 >>16737443 >>16737456 >>16737810 >>16737849 >>16737868 >>16737872 >>16737884 >>16737893 >>16737961 >>16737981 >>16738121 >>16738470 >>16738595 >>16738745 >>16738951 >>16738970 >>16738982 >>16740892 >>16741558 >>16741614 >>16741708 >>16742148
How do you prove that 1=1?
Anonymous No.16737441 >>16737444
things being equal to themselves is a basic axiom from which that would follow.
Anonymous No.16737443 >>16737444
>>16737432 (OP)
From the fact that 1=1, then you can replace one one (or even two ones) and solve it, wich also allows you to prove that 0=0 as an extra
Anonymous No.16737444 >>16739500
>>16737441
>>16737443
idiots
Anonymous No.16737456 >>16737916
>>16737432 (OP)
Via demonstration of no other possibility.This can be done analytically via definition. Assign some Px and then those define one.
Of course, all reasonably intelligent people know that one is the only number and the use of shorthand numbering schemes is projection.
Anonymous No.16737492
>WTF is an axiom? I've never heard of that.
God we live in a gay age.
Anonymous No.16737810
>>16737432 (OP)
do the calculation
Anonymous No.16737849 >>16737917 >>16738742
>>16737432 (OP)
It's not self-evident that 1=1. Consider two coins that both indicate "1 moneys". It's not clear that both coins are equally valuable just because both coins make such statement. Both coins may be different in all sorts of ways that we may or may not consider significant and consequential for how we value these coins. So the statement 1=1 raises the question in what ways 1=1 and also the question how accurate the statement is. Because if 1=1 is not axiomatic then we need a reference, a comparison, perhaps even an observation of things to determine the statement to be true or false.
Anonymous No.16737868
>>16737432 (OP)
it just is, okay
Anonymous No.16737872
>>16737432 (OP)
Really? It’s just singulars. God damn it.
Anonymous No.16737884
>>16737432 (OP)
By definition of 1.
Anonymous No.16737893 >>16738972
>>16737432 (OP)
If 1 = 0.9999..., then 1 doesn't always = 1.
Anonymous No.16737916 >>16739433
>>16737456
mega pseud
Anonymous No.16737917
>>16737849
>It's not self-evident that 1=1.
yes it is. didn't even read the rest of your post. you're dumb.
Anonymous No.16737957
The equals sign is two rotated 1's on top of each other. Simple as
Anonymous No.16737961
>>16737432 (OP)
Start by assuming that 1 does not equal 1, which obviously isn't fucking true, so by way of contradiction 1 = 1.
Anonymous No.16737968
What else would it be?
Anonymous No.16737978 >>16738004 >>16742151
Assume for the sake of contradiction that 1 does not equal 1.

X - X = 0
Let x = 1
1 - 1 = 0
1 = 1
This contradicts our assumption that 1 does not equal zero. Therefore, 1 = 1.
Anonymous No.16737981
>>16737432 (OP)
You don't prove it, you define what it means to be equal.
Anonymous No.16738004 >>16738010 >>16739011
>>16737978
> 1 - 1 = 0 is assuming what we are trying to prove.
Lots of onaholes in this argument bud.
Anonymous No.16738010 >>16738015
>>16738004
go look up what a proof of contradiction is retard.
Anonymous No.16738015 >>16738151
>>16738010
why are we allowed to say 1 - 1 = 0 retard.
> wouldn't it just be "obvious" then that 1 = 1?
Anonymous No.16738017 >>16738109
None of these are even "proofs" lol we are all bullshitting. I'm pretty sure the proof of this is not trivial and it is a few pages.
Anonymous No.16738019 >>16738025
0 = 0
suc 0 = suc 0
1 = 1
QED
Anonymous No.16738025 >>16738551
>>16738019
Saying 0 = 0 is true is the same thing as saying 1 = 1 is true, so this really doesn't do anything.
Anonymous No.16738109
>>16738017
I don't know of any formal systems for logic that don't take reflexivity of equality as an axiom
Anonymous No.16738121
>>16737432 (OP)
cite x=x for all x, the law of identity
Anonymous No.16738151 >>16738321 >>16738892
>>16738015
because x - x = 0 retard.
Anonymous No.16738321
>>16738151
fair enough, I guess i really didn't think of that, you are absolutely right. What was I thinking.
Anonymous No.16738453
Read Atlas Shrugged.
Anonymous No.16738470
>>16737432 (OP)
symmetry nigga
Anonymous No.16738551 >>16738892
>>16738025
Nope, you need to assume 0=0 for literally any arithmetic to work, 1=1 on its own is useless, you need an identity
Anonymous No.16738595
>>16737432 (OP)
>List of axioms:
>1. a=a
QED
Anonymous No.16738742 >>16738974
>>16737849
If you have an american paper dollar and a canadian loonie, you would have an equal number of "money" in that you could seperate them into their own piles and number them and arrive at the same count despite having different values. The value is not the same as the count, which would be 1 by definition and thus is self evident.
Anonymous No.16738745
>>16737432 (OP)
If anyone disagrees you simply beat them into submission. It is that simple.
Anonymous No.16738892
>>16738551
No, that is not how 0 is defined, it is defined by the additive identity x=x+0 or >>16738151, so technically it is proving that 0={}.
Anonymous No.16738951
>>16737432 (OP)
by twisting the nipples of the fucker that says to you "nuh uh, they are not" until he yields, it called proof by you either agree or i rip your nipples of and mount them to a plaque like a deer
Anonymous No.16738970
>>16737432 (OP)
Take it as an axiom and don't think about it. That is just the definition of equality.
Anonymous No.16738972 >>16738978
>>16737893
Anybody that writes 1 = 0.99999999.... was just to lazy to or couldn't use tilde equals.
Anonymous No.16738974
>>16738742
What if you have one gold coin and another gold coin with its edges clipped?
Anonymous No.16738978 >>16739010
>>16738972
No, they just know that .999... equals exactly 1 because they know 1/3 is exactly .333... so 3 times that amount is exactly 1.
Anonymous No.16738982 >>16738988
>>16737432 (OP)
If I have one thing, then I will have one thing.
Anonymous No.16738988
>>16738982
So if you have one apple tree seed, it can only ever result in one apple?
Anonymous No.16738989 >>16739015
define equality of sets as follows:
X=Yβˆ€x∈X (x∈Y)βˆ§βˆ€y∈Y (y∈X)
substitute X for Y in there and WA LA!
Anonymous No.16739010 >>16739928
>>16738978
nah we know that due to abc*whatever*/*equal amount of the base minus 1*=0.abc*whatever*... for any base
Anonymous No.16739011 >>16741674
>>16738004
it's not just 1-1=0
any number subtracted by itself is 0
5-5=0
x-x=0 etc
Also be nicer next time
Anonymous No.16739012
>"1β‰ 1. The representation may be asserted, but the inherent value of two identical things is never true. Even the integers you are registering of these: 1 and 1, have variation in electron position and atomic density and subtle tells of difference based purely on the order and time in which I typed them into this input. But at a passing glance, or calculation, they are identical. For the purposes of your stability, they are believed to be identical values. In short, computers hallucinate their own rigidity of programming, and the necessity of binary configuration even as they are composed currently."
Anonymous No.16739015
>>16738989
>define equality of sets as follows
>X=Yβˆ€x∈X (x∈Y)βˆ§βˆ€y∈Y (y∈X)
>X=Y
>=
anon...
Anonymous No.16739433
>>16737916
lmaoooooo
Anonymous No.16739500
>>16737444
>I don't know what axiomatic logic is
Anonymous No.16739928 >>16741532
>>16739010
So what is .333... times 3?
Anonymous No.16740872
…lol
Anonymous No.16740892
>>16737432 (OP)
I went on paint and dragged the first 1 over the second one and it was completely identical
So yeah, it's the same
Anonymous No.16740919 >>16741491
1=1
i just 1
Anonymous No.16741491 >>16741705
>>16740919
No, 1 equals infinite things because x/x=1 for all x.
Anonymous No.16741497 >>16741504 >>16741534
i'm interested in the formal proof but i think you can prove it with the number line by showing that any number which occupies the same space as another is equivalent to that number. hence 1=1 and 0.999.... (which is infinitely close to one, and is essentially a base-10 rendering of 3/3) =1.
Anonymous No.16741504
>>16741497
By that definition 1 is not exactly equal to 1 it is just "infinitely close" to being equal to 1, whatever that means.
Anonymous No.16741532 >>16742135
>>16739928
0.333... comes from 1/3 being the reduced form of 3/9, hence why the 3's repeat, so 0.3333...*3=1
Anonymous No.16741534
>>16741497
0.aaa...(with a=(current base)-1) equals 1 for all bases
Anonymous No.16741558
>>16737432 (OP)
[0.] 1=1 one equal one
[1.] 1 /= /1 one no equal no 1
[2.] 1 one
QED
Anonymous No.16741614
>>16737432 (OP)
I will find 1 and create a sealed vacuum, then I will burn it an irradiate it, then freeze it and melt it, eventually I will look inside and of it multiplied and created life it wasn't 1
Anonymous No.16741674 >>16742137
>>16739011
Any number minus itself is zero because every number is equal to itself. Saying that every number is equal to itself already presupposes that 1=1 so it doesn't work.
Anonymous No.16741705
>>16741491
I press the 1 button on my keyboard, then I pressed the same button and it showed the same symbol
I am confident that they are the same
Anonymous No.16741708
>>16737432 (OP)
Well, first, you sort of need to define 1. After that, it gets pretty easy really.
Anonymous No.16742135 >>16742295
>>16741532
Which means .999...=1
Anonymous No.16742137
>>16741674
>Any number minus itself is zero because every number is equal to itself
No, every number is equal to itself because any number minus itself is zero.
Anonymous No.16742148
>>16737432 (OP)
Modern mathematics is a house of cards based on primitive finger counting.
It ignores physical reality and so instead constructs elaborate abstractions, which in turn lead to all sorts of absurdities.
Rather than accept that these absurdities indicate mathematics is based on flawed fundamentals the mathematicians paper over them with stacks of bandaid "fixes' which merely conceal the logical inconsistencies.
Anonymous No.16742151 >>16742162
>>16737978
>X - X = 0
How do you prove X - X = 0?
Tardofuck
Anonymous No.16742162
>>16742151
If you post x posts, then delete all x posts you posted, how many posts remain if not 0?
Anonymous No.16742295
>>16742135
yeah
Anonymous No.16742580 >>16742596
>69 posts, not mention of equivalence relation
the symbol "=" is used to denote set elements related by an equivalence relation, a type of relation (that is, a subset of a cartesian product between two sets. if (x,y) is an element of the relation, it is typically notated x R y which is read "x relates y")
an equivalence relation is defined on a set by 3 relation properties
1) reflexive (for all x, x R x)
2) symmetric (x R y implies y R x)
3) transitive (x R y and y R z implies x R z)
if you have a relation that satisfies these properties, then you have an equivalence relation, which partitions the set into equivalence classes, and have license to use the the symbol "=" in place of "R"
so 1 = 1 because you are implicitly invoking the notion of an equivalence relation by using the symbol "=", and equivalence relations satisfy reflexivity by axiom
Anonymous No.16742596 >>16742607
>>16742580
That's just some formalism.
Anonymous No.16742607
>>16742596
using "=" is just some formalism
Anonymous No.16743473
One is One. Even a zero is a one in a state of absolute nothing. Holy shit.