Debating the Definition of "Epigenetics"
Sup /sci/. I went through the Yamanaka factor literature after DWS's threads and recently got into a debate with a friend over what exactly "epigenetics" is defined as.
His position is that a *heritable* trait between generations of organisms must change to qualify as an "epigenetic" modification or modulation, which finds support in some older literature. My position is that the old definition is too narrow, and "epigenetics" should also encompass *any* modification to protein production by somatic cells.
I came up with an interesting hypothetical to illustrate the limits of the old definition. You have "Epigenetic Drug X" capable of modifying some heritable trait, but you give it to a nullo. My friend argues under the old definition that this drug is not *really* epigenetic-modifying in that context. But say you add in "Epigenetic Drug Y" that causes the nullo to regrow their balls and reproduce. Now my friend admits "Epigenetic Drug X" and "Epigenetic Drug Y" have both become real epigenetic drugs, even though "Epigenetic Drug X" did that retroactively somehow. I argue this hypothetical obliterates the heritability requirement as a logical component of defining epigenetics.
Thoughts?
His position is that a *heritable* trait between generations of organisms must change to qualify as an "epigenetic" modification or modulation, which finds support in some older literature. My position is that the old definition is too narrow, and "epigenetics" should also encompass *any* modification to protein production by somatic cells.
I came up with an interesting hypothetical to illustrate the limits of the old definition. You have "Epigenetic Drug X" capable of modifying some heritable trait, but you give it to a nullo. My friend argues under the old definition that this drug is not *really* epigenetic-modifying in that context. But say you add in "Epigenetic Drug Y" that causes the nullo to regrow their balls and reproduce. Now my friend admits "Epigenetic Drug X" and "Epigenetic Drug Y" have both become real epigenetic drugs, even though "Epigenetic Drug X" did that retroactively somehow. I argue this hypothetical obliterates the heritability requirement as a logical component of defining epigenetics.
Thoughts?
