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6/30/2025, 10:01:14 AM
>>16710905
So after like what, 30 posts itt, OP finally explains his dogshit notation. So we’re dealing with a function with integer domain and real codomain. And the claim in OP’s pic is that if it is (non-strictly) monotonically decreasing (as f(n+1) <= f(n)), then its limit at infinity is -infty. But then somewhere along the line OP also inserted some kind of finite-difference equivalent of the absolute value of the second derivative being monotonously decreasing?
You will have a stunning career as an economist, my dude. You are only 18, but have already perfected the art of muddying the waters. You also have the characteristic boastful arrogance about it. You’ll feel at home in the econ department.
So after like what, 30 posts itt, OP finally explains his dogshit notation. So we’re dealing with a function with integer domain and real codomain. And the claim in OP’s pic is that if it is (non-strictly) monotonically decreasing (as f(n+1) <= f(n)), then its limit at infinity is -infty. But then somewhere along the line OP also inserted some kind of finite-difference equivalent of the absolute value of the second derivative being monotonously decreasing?
You will have a stunning career as an economist, my dude. You are only 18, but have already perfected the art of muddying the waters. You also have the characteristic boastful arrogance about it. You’ll feel at home in the econ department.
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