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6/21/2025, 8:52:16 PM
If Hart-Celler heavily relaxed immigration rules in the US as early as 1965, how come there seems to have been much less migration before 9/11 compared to after it?
Was it because flights were rarer and more costly in the late 20th century?
Or because the internet makes it easier to move across countries?
Was it because flights were rarer and more costly in the late 20th century?
Or because the internet makes it easier to move across countries?
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