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6/22/2025, 11:37:54 PM
>>508380950
So did Pilate write that Jesus was "King of the Judeans?" Because the phrase "King of the Jews" in the Greek clearly says "King of the Judeans"
So did Pilate write that Jesus was "King of the Judeans?" Because the phrase "King of the Jews" in the Greek clearly says "King of the Judeans"
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