Why did English lose its inflections but German didn't? Apparently Proto-Indo-European had even more inflections than Latin.

What are the political implications of languages losing their declensions over the course of history? What is behind this development? Is it engineered by the elite? Ancient Greek had more cases than modern Greek. Proto-Indo-European had more cases than classical Latin and ancient Greek. German is losing cases/declensions as we speak. English and Swedish used to be declined/inflected languages like German and Latin but today it's all gone.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Declension#Languages_that_lost_their_declension_system

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Analytic_language#Background

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Synthetic_language#Increase_in_analyticity

>Why should I study Latin? It's sufficient to know English.
https://archive.org/details/familia-romana