Anonymous
7/12/2025, 6:35:54 PM No.17835762
Why were Romans so hellbent on exporting orientals (MENAs) and their degeneracy to their European holdings (Britannia, Gaul, Hispania, Balkans), but not the other way around? Were menas simply more adherent to Roman custom and therefore were entrusted to โromanizeโ the populations of the European areas?
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