>>17937404
>At the time when the verse was written, the Logos of God had not become incarnate, and so the Sacred Author could rightly write that God is not a "son of man." If the verse were in the New Testament, it would be problematic.
Seems like a slippery hermeneutic, frankly. Any heretic could say "God WAS love when that was written, now God is hate". It seems to strip the scriptures of any lasting relevance or authority.
>the Old Testament does refer to God as a man several times (e.g. in the Song of Moses)
You mean the heavenly father metaphor? If this is to be taken as calling God human, then Luke 3 calling Adam the son of God means YHWH is a human being too (Genesis 2 says YHWH created Adam). Is the spirit also a human being? Is divinity just a power that a human being has in your theology?
>as well as notably in the prophesy of Isaiah
Verse 7 says that the child's authority will grow continually. God has total authority at all times, so clearly God is not in view. As for the name, the translations which seem to specify the referent as God are tendentious. There are tons of proposed translations that basically make it a long theophoric name - saying something about God, not the referent.
BTW the Septuagint (i.e., the Christian Biblical manuscript tradition) omits the theophoric element altogether.
>Micah 5:2
This being a reference to a divine Messiah depends on the tendentious translation "of eternity". This is Strong's #5769 - plenty of examples from the Bible where it can't mean "eternally existent"/"preexisting time", so it is hardly the case that it must mean that.