>>17943525
By winning it for someone else while taking all blows of a loss.
>>17943536
>if they had not inserted themselves
They saw themselves as apart of the German States, when Napoleon fought Austria it inevitably drew in other German states, and eventually Prussia.
Do you see WHY Prussia got involved?
It wasnt irrational or against Prussian national interest nor was it some bizarre desire for war.
There's no syntax error.
You are refusing to see the causes for why Prussia got involved.
again, I dont care about the Napoleonic wars.
The landscape is nothing like WWII.
>it shows Britain and France involving themselves wasnt extra-ordinary
That isnt what was extra-ordinary.
What is extra-ordinary is that Britain and France, more so Britain, werent acting within their national interests by involving themselves.
Prussia WAS acting within their national interests.
Britain was not.
We can see this unfold in real time because Britain's fruits of "victory" looks like strategic defeat.
It is extra-ordinary to go out of your way, against the national interests, on behalf of people totally unrelated to you, and commit to a deathmatch, and then come out on the other side weaker than had you actually capitulated from battlefield loss.
>what I am arguing is Britain was in line with their foreign interests
Yes, and I am disputing that.
What does this have to do with Prussia?
>you can only rationalize with 1939 logic
What does this even mean?
>obvious geopolitical parallels
you havent established any, the only parallels youve drawn are that countries go to war.
>British rationale
What's the rationale behind escalation?
There is nothing in escalation that benefits Britian or France.
France was just retarded, Britain was corrupt.
Countries can in fact be retarded and corrupt.
This is an instance where that is the case.
>Germany did not exist
Lets not be autistic
an organization of German speaking regions where most held closer ties to eachother than to foreign powers is "Germany"