OP
10/14/2025, 3:10:44 AM
No.18071263
>>18072115
>>18072204
>>18072241
>>18072909
>>18074141
>>18074741
>>18075747
>>18076098
>>18076122
>>18079659
>>18080491
The 'secret' protocol in 1939
Everyone knows Britain gave guarantees to Poland in 1939.
Less people know there was a secret protocol added that specified that the guarantee was only towards Germany.
It explains why Britain only declared war in Germany, from a legal perspective at least.
But this 'secret protocol' has always puzzled me.
If you make the guarantee specifically against Germany, then that means you expect Poland to be attacked by others too. Does it not?
In that case, it makes the guarantee completely redundant unless you don't actually care about Polands future. Does it not?
Not only do you not care about her future, but you actively anticipate that outcome. Why else would they add that special protocol? Why else keep it secret?
But that's not the problem. The real problem comes now:
Why would you write that little detail in a secret protocol?
Why not public?
If I may speculate; perhaps if it had been public in the guarantee, it could have prevented the Germans from invading Poland altogether.
If the Germans knew the guarantee was NOT about protecting poland but about SPECIFICALLY going to war with Germany, could it hypothetically have influenced German decision?
After all, the Germans gambled that Britain wouldn't declare war over Poland.
Let me repeat that. Hitler invaded Poland because he believed the western powers wouldn't go to war over Poland.
So in a way, he was correct, he just didn't know how adamant they were at going to war to stop Germany. Had he known, would he still gave pulled the trigger?
>inb4 the allies declared war because of all the shit Germany did prior to invading Poland
Yes I know. He broke the Munich agreement, he threatened war with Lithuania etc. I get it. It makes sense to confront Germany.
But that's not relevant to the point about seemingly hiding the intentions of the guarantee which may have had implications.
Idk, it just seems kinda sketchy and I hate how it's just taken for granted by everyone. Am I the only one who thinks this?
Less people know there was a secret protocol added that specified that the guarantee was only towards Germany.
It explains why Britain only declared war in Germany, from a legal perspective at least.
But this 'secret protocol' has always puzzled me.
If you make the guarantee specifically against Germany, then that means you expect Poland to be attacked by others too. Does it not?
In that case, it makes the guarantee completely redundant unless you don't actually care about Polands future. Does it not?
Not only do you not care about her future, but you actively anticipate that outcome. Why else would they add that special protocol? Why else keep it secret?
But that's not the problem. The real problem comes now:
Why would you write that little detail in a secret protocol?
Why not public?
If I may speculate; perhaps if it had been public in the guarantee, it could have prevented the Germans from invading Poland altogether.
If the Germans knew the guarantee was NOT about protecting poland but about SPECIFICALLY going to war with Germany, could it hypothetically have influenced German decision?
After all, the Germans gambled that Britain wouldn't declare war over Poland.
Let me repeat that. Hitler invaded Poland because he believed the western powers wouldn't go to war over Poland.
So in a way, he was correct, he just didn't know how adamant they were at going to war to stop Germany. Had he known, would he still gave pulled the trigger?
>inb4 the allies declared war because of all the shit Germany did prior to invading Poland
Yes I know. He broke the Munich agreement, he threatened war with Lithuania etc. I get it. It makes sense to confront Germany.
But that's not relevant to the point about seemingly hiding the intentions of the guarantee which may have had implications.
Idk, it just seems kinda sketchy and I hate how it's just taken for granted by everyone. Am I the only one who thinks this?