>>18129023
>The argument doesn't aim to conclude validity of a particular religious institution. It aims to conclude God and that is what it manages.
Yes, but it has not proven in any meaningful way a 'God' of even potential interest to any religious institution, if anything, it has done the opposite. I think the word 'God' has too much implicit religious import, it derives from *gheu(e)- "to call, invoke.", or *gheu- "to pour, pour a libation". The 'God' proven has nothing to do with a 'God' of invocations or libations.
>It's relatively far from the Spinozist God. You're a lot closer with Platonic or Neoplatonic "the One"
I do not think this is true. Do not forget Spinoza's God is also considered under "sub specie aeternitatis." Similarly the Aristotelian prime mover is the entelechy of reality, and so is also way more immanent than most christian theologicans are comfortable with. The neoplatonic 'the One' is completely beyond Being. The Nous is Being, not the One. The One cannot be meaningfully assigned 'Being'. Again, they tend to proof a rational (and so provable) ordering principle, not an endpoint of mystical assent.
>Point out the invalid steps, please.
Too laborious to go into the nitty gritty of the formal logic here. The classical problem famously emphasized by Bertrand Russel is that in formal logic existence cannot be a predicate, which is assumed for i.e Anselmus' proof. This can be amended with modal logic but not without its own problems. look up the wikipedia for Gödel's ontological proof if you're interested.
>Faith as a psychological mechanism is required no matter what. You're operating under the cartesian conflation of logical certainty and psychological certianty.
Sure, if you want to make that distinction. But it would be a faith emotionally indifferent, open to being proven wrong, and again, would be more similar to the 'faith' we have in something like the standard model, not to that of religion. Essentially just the basic 'atheist' attitude to beliefs.