Anonymous
9/19/2025, 7:51:59 PM
No.16790153
[Report]
>>16790322
>>16790633
>>16790805
>>16790809
>>16790977
>>16791223
>>16791312
Am I tripping? There's no way it's 51.8%
>P(2 boys | Mary says she has a boy) = P(2 boys)/P(Mary says she has a boy) = 1/(4 P(Mary says she has a boy))
>Now P(Mary says she has a boy) = 1/4P(Mary says she has a boy | Mary has 2 boys) + 1/2P(Mary says she has a boy | Mary has 1 boy & 1 girl)
>We can assume P(Mary says she has a boy | Mary has 2 boys) = 1 if we consider Mary to always say the truth, which is reasonable.
>Assume P(Mary says she has a boy | Mary has 1 boy.& 1 girl) = 1/2 because yes?
>So P(Mary says she has a boy) = 1/2 which is quite expected for symmetry
>Therefore P(2 boys | Mary says she has a boy) = 1/2
Am I a retard? Everybody on Reddit is arguing over this
>Now P(Mary says she has a boy) = 1/4P(Mary says she has a boy | Mary has 2 boys) + 1/2P(Mary says she has a boy | Mary has 1 boy & 1 girl)
>We can assume P(Mary says she has a boy | Mary has 2 boys) = 1 if we consider Mary to always say the truth, which is reasonable.
>Assume P(Mary says she has a boy | Mary has 1 boy.& 1 girl) = 1/2 because yes?
>So P(Mary says she has a boy) = 1/2 which is quite expected for symmetry
>Therefore P(2 boys | Mary says she has a boy) = 1/2
Am I a retard? Everybody on Reddit is arguing over this