>>17953291
Bonus*******
Part of the problem here is that there really isn't a good reason to accept the accounts of the early Spaniards as absolute truth and absolute truth, because as I've said 5 times here, they are contradictory and often romantic, but to finally leave here empty-handed and at the mercy of these anons with their feelings of grandeur in the thread, I'll try to argue based on estimates beyond mere accounts of Iberian and wonderful bulls
Vaillant says the total population is 300,000, Borah and Cook say 360,000, and Frei Bartolomé cites something that would make even the La Raza guys gasp, citing 1 million (LMAO).
Based on a retarded number of houses, the most exaggerat modern estimate I could find was Soustelle, with 90 houses. Anyway, after this boring bluster, as I said, there's no way to blindly rely on these Spanish reports, but it's a fact that the 60/50 number makes more sense.
But most of them weren't present in Mexico and were third-hand reports.
Buttttttt, to the sadness of many and the tears of others, we have some modern demographic studies, and with greater experimental apparatus than those from the 1950s, and I present to you
Jimenez Martinez (2021)
Basically, he used information from Cortés to obtain an urban area of 9.44 square kilometers and says in the article's conclusion a population density of 8,000 to 10,000/km2, (below most modern urban areas) in line with the comparison with Seville and Córdoba, with a maximum of 75,000 and 95,000 inhabitants :/
The Spanish exaggerated a lot and were gay romanticists
Source:
http://www.scielo.org.co/scielo.php?script=sci_arttext&pid=S0122-20662022000100125