>>17810506>I wonder if calling the Bible "the word of God" could count as idolatryObviously not.
"Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;
Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?"
- John 10:34-36
In the above passage of John, Jesus directly equates the word of God to scripture.
"And the next sabbath day came almost the whole city together to hear the word of God.
But when the Jews saw the multitudes, they were filled with envy, and spake against those things which were spoken by Paul, contradicting and blaspheming.
Then Paul and Barnabas waxed bold, and said, It was necessary that the word of God should first have been spoken to you: but seeing ye put it from you, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, lo, we turn to the Gentiles.
For so hath the Lord commanded us, saying, I have set thee to be a light of the Gentiles, that thou shouldest be for salvation unto the ends of the earth.
And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as were ordained to eternal life believed."
- Acts 13:44-48
The word of God and the word of the Lord clearly refers here to the inspired word. See also:
"But the word of the Lord endureth for ever. And this is the word which by the gospel is preached unto you."
- 1 Peter 1:25
>Hebrews 4:12-13, I suspect might instead be about Jesus.I understand Hebrews 4:12-13 to be referring to the word of God in either sense. You also see this overlap in places like Proverbs 30:4-6, Psalm 33:6, Hebrews 11:3 (comp. Hebrews 1:1-3 and 2 Peter 3:5) and Titus 2:5, and very interestingly, John 12:48. Obviously 1 John 1:1-2, Revelation 19:13, and others also refer to God the Son, Jesus.
>The abrupt shift from "it" to "him"It makes sense because the word λόγος (logos) is masculine.